To clarify brooklynguy's posts, the way I've always heard it is not that the mortgage is like a bond portion of your portfolio, but that paying off the mortgage is like buying a bond (which he did say, but I'll try to illustrate).
For example, say you have a house worth $300k, with a 300k mortgage (no equity) at 4%, and a 1MM portfolio. You decide you want your allocation to be 90/10 stocks/bonds. By paying down your mortgage by 100k (and investing 900k in stocks), you've essentially bought a bond that returned 4% (your mortgage interest rate).
Thus the argument is that if you have a mortgage, you shouldn't hold ANY bonds until that mortgage is paid off (assuming the mortgage rate > bond rates), but should be 100% equities, and when you "rebalance" (or, say, are going to buy more bonds via contributions), you pay down the mortgage by that amount. It's functionally equivalent to buying a 4% bond at that point.
I'm sure that's what he meant, just trying to put it in different words. Not sure if I succeeded. :)