I think, especially after reading MDM's post, that I use the term "SWR" too loosely. I've always looked at it like a black box: you have an investment portfolio worth X, and you take out Y per year to cover expenses. Here the investment portfolio could be
whatever (rentals, stocks, bonds, tulips), and the cash flow comes either directly from rents/interest payments or selling assets.
Let me ask this question: what if you had half rentals and have paper portfolio?
In that case, aren't you just setting SWR to ROI?
Not necessarily. What if your ROI is much greater than the amount you need to live? Say your
net rental income (after maintenance, fees, taxes, etc) is $50k/year, but you only need $25k/year to live. Clearly ROI isn't equal to SWR. What do you call the $25k number in relation to your portfolio?
Say I make 75k/yr on properties with market value of $625k.
You'd say then that my SWR is 12%?
Yes, but
only if you spend the full $75k.
But if you spend less than that, then the remainder basically goes back into your portfolio as an allocation (cash or whatever you re-invest into, e.g. capital improvements on existing property, more properties, or traditional paper investments).
I do think it's categorically different than the bond scenario. It also has other factors that a bond doesn't have (the house is likely appreciating, unlike the bond principal, rents are likely to rise, unlike the bond's annual payout, etc. etc.).
You can theoretically get closer to real estate-like parameters with something like a TIPS ladder.
I don't think someone with a COLA'd annuity that covers all their expenses has a SWR.
Agreed, or even a COLA'd pension for that matter... or (for non-early retirees) social security, if it covers all expenses.
Rental income is more like owning a business that pays you - it doesn't make sense to talk about the SWR of a business that passes its profits to you, the owner.
Owning (dividend-paying) stocks is (partial) ownership in a business that pays you.
I think I see where you're coming from: let's say I buy a McDonald's franchise, but hire a manager to do all the real work. I just sign off on "big" decisions, but get a cut of the profits. This is not unlike a rental situation, agreed? So if I get enough franchise profits to entirely cover my expenses, I don't really have a "SWR".
But let's say I go in with a group of people, form something like an LLC, and the LLC buys a franchise. Again, we hire a manager to oversee all the operational work. But profits from this franchise are paid to the LLC, which in turn are divided up among the LLC partners. Let's say I do this several dozen times, each with a different group of people. In aggregate, all these partnerships pay enough to cover my expenses. Is it a SWR or no? But from my perspective, this arrangement is starting to look more and more like holding a handful of (dividend paying) stocks. Where is the category distinction?
Where I'm coming from: my ideal FIRE plan is that my "SWR" is low enough that I never actually have to sell any paper investments. In other words, I want the cash flow from dividends and interest to cover all expenses (with a little extra for cushion). From a block-box perspective, I think this approach is similar to yours: I have an underlying investment portfolio that should keep pace with inflation and generates some cash. So would you say that "SWR" isn't an appropriate term for me, either?
MDM posted while I was composing this...
Your actual withdrawal rate (AWR or simply WR) is whatever you actually do remove from your investments. This implies your investments are liquid enough that you can convert them to cash to pay for your expenses.
E.g., if you had 10 $100K rental properties that were all vacant, you could sell one, invest $70K in the market, and use $30K for expenses and have a 3% WR that year. If your rentals are providing more cash flow than you need for expenses, you can invest the extra and your WR is negative.
So, yeah, I've been using "SWR" when I actually mean "[A]WR".
I added the emphasis above to ask the question, what counts as "removing"? :) In a stock portfolio, if you use dividend payments to cover your living expenses, is that considered "removing"? In my mind, anything that inhibits the natural growth of an investment would be removing. So, not doing dividend re-investment would fall into this category: clearly, all things being equal, the DRIP'ing stock portfolio will grow more that the one that doesn't DRIP. Same goes for a rental: the rental income
could be similarly re-invested, either as down payment for more rentals, or capital improvements on existing rentals, etc.
I'd argue it's a useful concept to have a word for, though. I mean if you know what your costs per year are going to be going forward and want to know how much you need in a lump sum to support that lifestyle, you take your costs and multiply by a factor. In my book, the number you multiply by is 1/SWR.
This is kind of what I was getting at: what portfolio value are you shooting for in relation to your expenses (i.e. "what's your number?"). But maybe, you don't look at it that way? Maybe you're coming at it from a purely cash flow perspective?
Still seems like a semantic issue to me. :)