Hi all. I'm hoping someone can point me in the right direction.
My mother-in-law (age 65) is trying to retire on her house appreciation. Here is her current situation:
She paid 50k back in '83 for a 4 bedroom detached house in Loughton,Essex, Greater London. She is selling it to a buyer for 675k. She has about 200k in second mortgages to pay off, leaving her at 475k total.
She wants to buy her final home for 250k outright. Leaving her 275k. The buyer has been messing her around and to complete the transaction the agent is saying my MIL should buy the buyer's house at 360k which she plans to put down 260k and finance the last 100k for a repayment of 200 pounds per month.
This will leave her with 15k cash, a paid off 250k home, and a rental property with a 100k mortgage with 200 pound monthly payment.
The agent says she can rent the property at 1200 per month, and of course they have *offered* to manage it for her as well at 10%.
My MIL receives 1k per month in government pension and for a secure retirement requires A. a paid off home, 2. an extra 1k per month which is why this rental property is looking good to her.
I have serious concerns about this set up as my MIL is a newspaper investor (i.e. 'buy to let is hot now!!' 'I made so much off my first home, real estate always goes up!'
She has not factored in costs to maintain/repair the home if need be. She plans to quit working (she currently earns 1k per month) and replace it with the rental income.
Where are some calculators I can run some numbers for this scenario?
What are your thoughts, issues, concerns as UK landlords?
She is saying at 70 her mortgage is forgiven due to UK laws and the government pays it- is this true? Is this a primary home mortgage only or does it matter?
I only just learned of this and obviously I'm concerned about her financial well-being as she heads into her 70s and retirement.
She is planning to finalize this next week. Any info at all is welcome.
Thanks!!