How, exactly are these two statements any different in any way shape or form?
Regardless of how you view the data, the average medical debt of those poorly grouped sample was close to $18,000, which I find non-trivial.
Think of it this way: For that sample, the average medical debt at foreclosure is very close to 1.3 times annual wages of a minimum wage earner. Was it a minimum wage earner that lost their mortgage? Of course not, since that worker would not have been able to buy a home to begin with.
As long as my link can provide a number of medical foreclosures larger than 0, then it has served the purpose I intended it to. --> requires that a single foreclosure, which everyone can pretty much stipulate to without even looking at data or agreeing on the definition of medical foreclosure. Whatever definition, as long as it is tenuously related to medical and foreclosure, there was certainly at least one foreclosure that matches somewhere in the country.
I can certainly understand how someone could conclude that $5000 in medical bills should not alone trigger a foreclosure, so I would claim that the 62% number is inflated. Still, average within that group was close to $18,000, which shows me that prior to 2009 medical bills were absolutely more than a trivial factor. --> requires some non-trivial number of bankruptcies caused by medical foreclosures.
If you look at the numbers inside the study rather than the sensationalized BS, 5.7% of bankruptcies where somebody refinanced their home to pay for medical bills could get you to a non-trivial amount, but you'd need to know whether bankruptcy filers are representative of people being foreclosed on in general. Just doing some quick googling, it looks like there were around 1.3 million foreclosures in 2007 and 827,395 bankruptcies in 2007. These numbers obviously don't match as there could in theory be lots of bankruptcies without foreclosures because people don't have a house or affirm their mortgage through the bankruptcy, and there can be foreclosures without a bankruptcy, or multiple foreclosures associated with one bankruptcy. But simplifying it, you get about .64 bankruptcies for every foreclosure, so it seems like 3.6% of foreclosures involving someone that refinanced their homes for medical bills to be a reasonable back of the envelope calculation.
That's on the borderline of trivial, but it's also still intermingling the issue of income loss due to health issues and refinances due to medical bills, but it's also still possible that people who get foreclosed on without bankruptcy are maybe more likely to have mortgaged their house to pay for medical bills, so I'm not sure the 3.6% is even a reasonable back of the envelope calculation.
All that to say, I don't know whether more than a non-trivial number of foreclosures are caused by medical bills. I'm sure somebody has made an honest attempt to figure it our and probably has a pretty decent estimate, but I'm not sure who they are or what they found. I do know that the original article referenced doesn't provide the answer, and as far as I can tell, doesn't provide enough information to get to the answer.