So fundamentally, this is about SORR. The ERN article was a good explanation of how this happens, but it's logical: if you're targeting a particular NW figure for retirement, you're most likely to hit that target in a bull market, but the further you are into a bull market, the more likely the market is to drop shortly after you retire, which means it's more likely your investments will be depleted in the early years, which increases SORR.
ERN does a good job of trying to quantify that risk, and it turns out to be relatively small. This is also entirely logical, because the market tends to go up a lot more often than it goes down -- we see long rides up, followed by steep drop-offs over a short period of time, followed by maybe some time sort of wiggling around flat, but soon morphing into another long ride up. So unless you are unlucky enough to retire literally right at the peak of the market, your investments will continue to increase in value immediately after you retire -- so even if you planned on a flat 4% withdrawal rate, you won't actually need that full 4% to cover your expenses for that first month or year or five years, thus allowing your portfolio to continue to grow more than projected for that period. And that, in turn, provides some degree of cushion when the market does go down.
IMO, it's not particularly valuable to spend all the time and energy trying to put a precise figure on what the SORR would be in any particular future year/month/week. I mean, we can never predict the future, we can't possibly know how long any given bull market will continue. Rather than put all your eggs into the "I am going to achieve perfect quantification" basket, the more practical approach is to just assume that something bad is going to happen (because it always does) and take some steps to protect yourself against the downside risk that is always there -- things like immediate annuities to provide a guaranteed income stream, or a CD/bond ladder to ensure you have enough cash available to ride out a market drop, or just having a lot of flex in the budget to adjust your spending to 4% of the current value of your assets after a drop.
I think it is just a matter of different perspectives in the accumulation phase vs. the nearing-and-post-retirement phase. When you're accumulating, your goal is to get there as fast as possible, so you can afford to invest aggressively -- it's all about increasing your upside potential. And the 4% rule provides a perfectly reasonable target for that phase. When you get closer to the actual decision, however, your priorities need to shift in part to minimizing your downside risk. If you take the same "100% stocks, maximize my upside" approach into retirement, that's the thing that's going to set you up for long-term failure, not the fact that your retirement projections were based on the 4% rule.