Hi Everyone,
Bit of a fat fire type question: Quick question on capital gains on a primary pricincipe residence. I'm from the Uk originally so apologies for the dumb question!!
Hypothetical situation:
Purchase house for $1m in 2010 - house is principle residence live in there with family fro full 10 years.
Sell house for $2m in 2025 and simultaneously buy a new $2.5m house.
House is owned by married couple, who have lived in it solely and are buying another primary residence. Assume zero other costs rebates relating to additions, refurb, buying/selling costs etc. Assume couple earn >$500k for simplicity.
In that above situation, is it true that you would be paying $100k in capital gains tax - ($2m less $1m cost less $500k allowance)*20%?
As I say, apologies if this is absolute 101, primary residence are completely CG free in the UK irrespective of values. Am I missing something, like a roll-over allowance or something like that?? It just seems to be either a material incentive or barrier for homeowners to consider moving once the gain on the property approaches $500k.
Thanks!