Here's a question for Mustachians, wherever you may be along the Political Aisle:
Should voting be a widespread phenomenon? Or should it be limited in some way?
The general course of world history is to have more and more people have a say on how things are run in society. In early US Colonial history, only land-owning white males were allowed to vote. Later on, landless white males were allowed to vote too. Interesting enough, black males were allowed to vote as soon as 1870, whereas ANY women were not to vote until 1920!!!
Specific Amendments were made to the Constitution as well (from Wikipedia). They state that voting rights cannot be denied or abridged based on the following:
"Race, color, or previous condition of servitude" (15th Amendment, 1870)
"On account of sex" (19th Amendment, 1920)
"By reason of failure to pay any poll tax or other tax" for federal elections (24th Amendment, 1964)[nb 1]
"Who are eighteen years of age or older, to vote, shall not be denied or abridged by the United States or by any state on account of age" (26th Amendment, 1971)
So my question is, is there anyone out there in the internet that thinks that RESTRICTIONS should be justifiably placed on voting for any particular reason?How about for: Felons? 16 year olds? Children? People who are mentally disabled? Schizophrenics? Alzheimer's patients?
Thanks for playing!!!
JGS
https://www.nytimes.com/2017/07/22/opinion/sunday/the-bogus-voter-fraud-commission.html