But from the description of the person who sold, it wasn't the fact that his account had dropped x%. It was that he thought he would loose everything. He thought it could go to zero. Would having some bonds have stopped him from thinking that? Wouldn't he instead just have sold all his stocks and maybe kept the bonds. I guess that's a smaller loss, but not for the sleep-at-night reason.
Who knows?
It's a valid question. It's possible, but here's another scenario: Let's assume
he starts with a conservative 50/50 allocation. In 2008, during the early part of
the crash he decides to reallocate all his bonds to stocks. However, the market
still continues to crater well into 2009. And he now really panics and sells
all his stocks, thus locking in a permanent loss. It's a smaller loss than if
he'd started 2007 with 100% stocks, but emotionally he's probably gone through
the same gymnastics. Keep in mind that it was going to take a
long time for
him to withdraw these funds for living expenses -- possibly decades -- even if
the market had never recovered. In the meanwhile, he had income (military
pension, social security) and other safety nets in place.
Again, I mention this because many people on the MMM forums are probably outliers
in terms of acting rationally. However, financial advisors have to deal with this
behavior from their clients all the time.