Was just reviewing the wash sale rule here,
https://www.bogleheads.org/wiki/Wash_sale, and was curious about this:
"If you hold the same fund in your IRA or 401(k) as in your taxable account, make sure that there are no recent contributions to that fund if you might want to sell your taxable fund at a loss. Direct distributions in the IRA or 401(k) to a different fund in the same account. In a 401(k) in which contributions are made from every paycheck, direct your new contributions to a different fund as well."
I have FSTVX and FUSVX in my taxable account and there's a potential opportunity to TLH on the FSTVX now. I'm concerned if I sell and buy the FUSVX though, what implications there are for the IRAs. The 401k I'm not as worried about since I'm only holding the WFIOX in it. But with the IRAs, I made contributions earlier this year (maxed them out). The contributions went directly to cash reserves but shortly after I purchased some FSTVX in each account transferring funds out of the cash reserves. I also setup automatic reinvestment of dividends back into their respective funds.
Would any of this count as "recent contributions" according to the IRS? Or are "contributions" solely defined as money that I contributed that was *directly* invested in the respective fund without any other intervention?