How is it rampant if the average effect is 2%/year?
Are you going to address the questions raised?
I did address your question.
-My position is that in both cases, financed or not, the price of the home would be up 20%. The number of dollars exchanged for the home is 20% more.
-If 90% of people finance the home, the home isn't getting cheaper due to lower interest rates. The home remains 20% more expensive.
-What is happening is lower borrowing costs are offsetting the inflation in home prices.
-Lower borrowing costs are ALSO a sign of the dollars value being eroded. Dollars are plentiful and they do not demand any return.
-To say that the fact that the payment remains the same is a signal that inflation is not occurring I think is completely misreading the situation. Inflation is 20% in your example no matter the purchase method.
-In the case of a cash purchaser, the buyer experiences the loss of value of his dollars. In the case of the mortgage owner the lender experiences the loss in value of the dollar (this makes sense because it is technically the lender who purchased the house for 20% more and is now getting the same payments back). In both cases the dollar has lost value though.
-This brings me back to my very first post where I advocated that a large low interest mortgage may be a good move at the moment.
We certainly agree on the mortgage part - that it's an excellent inflation hedge.
Fwiw, I'm not quite seeing how your answer addresses my questions. It looks like you're repeating your position, not answering my questions. Sorry if I'm missing something obvious.
I'm not primarily seeking agreement, nor expecting to convince you. I'm seeking understanding, mostly to figure out if I'm missing something that you see. Still a bit baffled. Maybe we're measuring with different purposes in mind.
Your primary focus is on the cost of a house bought in cash. Is there a reason that's the primary example? (Sorry if I missed that part.)
Do you believe that all prices go along with the house price?
If house prices change but other prices don't, or if other prices change less on average than houses, how would you measure inflation for the overall economy? How would you decide what % of the whole that house price is?
I normally would want to measure for the economy as a whole, much as economists do, because that gives me information I can apply to varied scenarios in planning my life, and also because I like to understand what my fellow citizens experience. So for me, the question is "What do dollars get spent on, and how many dollars will be needed to buy those things next year?" That's hard to know for sure, therefore I like the economists' answer "Well, over a wide range of examples measured, the average change since last year is 1.9%, so probably 1.9% modified by any new information relevant to what thing you're buying."
In that mindset, the right "weight" of house prices compared to the whole could be measured in at least two reasonable ways that I can see. One is to measure how much each person pays for housing per month, in which case the interest rate offset is relevant, and in the example we've been discussing, inflation may be low if most people borrow for their purchase (perhaps 2%). The other way is, as you prefer, to count only purchase prices. In that case, certainly a 20% rise in purchase price is huge and very real. But in the purchase price method, if we consider the whole population, only a tiny fraction buy houses in a given year. If 10% buy houses, and the house prices are up by 20%, the price per person of housing paid this year still only goes up by 2%. Logically, inflation is still a low number for the group.
I think economists' normal measurements capture this spreading out of price increases, and accurately produce averages like 2% for overall inflation (even though house prices include previous years' increases, and surely that's more than 2%, though with other things averaged in too, maybe it's 2% overall.) The gap between individual prices for rare transactions and the lower average is because not everyone is doing the rare transactions. (Fwiw, that also makes me suspect that the measurements aren't intentionally misleading. They're not even misleading at all, unless the question you ask is different from what the measurement is designed to answer.)
(Incidentally, I'm curious. Previously, when asked why statisticians would intentionally mislead, you basically said they work for a living and their bosses have a vested interest in pretending inflation is low, so they produce the desired result. Plausible, though quite a contrast to what I heard years ago from professors in stats classes whose graduates often work as statisticians. I'm curious as to a different question: What makes you think that they mislead? Not what reason do you think they have - rather, what evidence or data or suggestive hints have you seen, which has convinced you?)
Re inflation generally, I might still be missing something. It's certainly true that for an individual cash buyer, houses really are about 20% higher - not just in the example, but across the country since last year, from what I read. Where I live, it's more like 30%!
Eventually, everyone who buys a house will pay a higher price (unless prices go back down). But will everyone pay 20% more each year? Or will everyone pay 20% more over a long period of time, like 10 years, so that the average change is 2%/year?
Are you thinking that what inflation should mean is "How much more would I have to pay IF I buy", rather than "How much more ARE people paying?"