I posted about a year ago about some stocks that I inherited, worth around $100,000, with which I wanted to "test" the 4% rule on as an experiment prior to FIRE. The reasons were so that I get the feel for the mechanics, the real world ups and downs, as well as I have a specific use for the ~$4,000 per year I can safely withdrawal. This thread is not mean to be a discussion as to whether or not you agree with me doing this experiment, it is about how to do it properly... this inheritance was never in my plans toward FIRE.
I understand how the concept of withdrawing 4% and increasing for each for inflation works, but what I don't understand is how it differs when a portfolio is heavy in dividend producing stocks. The stocks in this portfolio include: AEP, AAPL, CL, XOM, IBM, KHC, KMB, MCD & PFE. From what I can tell, it yields annual dividends of about 3% which are not being re-invested and rather kicked out into a separate account (did not set it up this way, just the way it is). What I am wondering is, when something is set up this way, I am assuming I can only take out and additional ~1% from the account for a total of 4% for the safe withdrawal to work? I assume taking out 4% in addition to the 3% already being paid out as dividends would cause a high likelihood of failure?
Another option would potentially be to sell all the individual stocks, buy a VTI/Bond ratio that I feel comfortable with and proceed normally. But that would lead to at least the question of how do people normally deal with the fact that VTI, for instance, pays out a 1.36% dividend? Is it because most people choose to re-invest that 1.36% and withdraw 4%?
Thank you for your time.