I was wondering if the chart they presented for the results of this strategy, for every 5 year period from 1955 on, is inflation adjusted or actual value of the fund. In other words, at the end of the 5 year period, if you had a flat result with $23,337 invested and $23,337 final value, this would be erroded value due to inflation simular to holding cash in hand or does that result mean it has same purchasing power that it had when the investment was made (inflation adjusted)
I'm assuming it is not inflation adjusted, to support their strategy/argument better.