Where did I say I miatrust management and that I want a 100% payout ratio? You seem to be taking my posts to their logical extremes. I'm not really sure why.
You said "IMO the better option is to take the dividend and choose how to allocate the capital instead of letting others choose for you." Yes, you didn't say anything about a 100% payout ratio; that was more me asking a Socratic question: if you can allocate capital better than management, why would you
not demand a 100% payout ratio (or sell all your shares)? Again, there's a logical conflict between you wanting to choose
how to allocate the capital, but allowing the company decide the
time and the
amount for you to reallocate.
For example, Disney just paid a dividend in January. Great, company, has had a great run, was at an all time high then. They could have just done a buyback, but instead I got cash from them and was able to use that cash to purchase more shares of Gilead, which was trading at an extreme discount at the time. I want to own more Disney, but not at $110.
Perfect, this makes it easy to make my logical-extremism more tangible by using a concrete example. You believed at the time of the dividend that Gilead was a better value than Disney. So you reallocated some capital from Disney to Gilead. That makes perfect sense.
What's odd is that the amount you decided to reallocate was 1.25% of your holding in Disney. If you thought Gilead was a better value then Disney, why did you not reallocate 100% of your holding in Disney to Gilead? Or, if you were less-confident in your valuation estimates and wanted to hedge your bets, why not 10%? Or 1.35%? Or 0.25%? It seems like an incredible coincidence that the amount that you thought was correct to reallocate just happened to be the amount that Disney decided to pay out in a dividend.
Of course, it wasn't a coincidence. You decided your reallocation amount and timing based on the decision of Disney's management to pay a dividend.
This is the logical conflict I'm trying to highlight. If you trust company management to correctly know the
amount of capital that you should reallocate elsewhere, then why would you stop trusting them when that amount just happens to be 0?
If we make the opposite assumption, and you
don't trust company management to correctly know the amount of capital that you should reallocate elsewhere, then you always have the ability to perform these reallocations whenever you'd like (by selling the amount of shares you deem appropriate). A dividend is not necessary for you to perform reallocation.
In either case, the payment of a dividend (or lack thereof) should not matter to you.
Buffett's case is different. He likes to own entire companies. In that case, he cannot perform capital reallocation by selling portions of those companies and investing the money elsewhere (at least not easily). So dividends are the only way for him to get access the capital in those companies. Thus, his preference for dividends in the companies he wholly-owns is logical. Until you get to the point where you're buying entire companies, you are not shackled with that "limitation" and have far more flexibility in reallocation because you can just sell some shares.
(And for the companies he only owns portions of, they tend to be dividend payers just because the types of companies Buffett knows how to value happen to be the types of companies that pay dividends; after all, 84% of S&P500 companies pay dividends; it's not an unusual class of stock! His quotes I pasted show that their dividends are just a side-effect, not the reason he bought them.)
They could have just done a buyback, but instead I got cash from them
No, not "could have". Disney
was doing a buyback, in addition to paying a dividend,
and doing capital reinvestments (it seems like most companies do some mix of at least those three these days). In fact, the amount returned to shareholders via buybacks exceeded the amount returned via dividends by 2.6x. If you believed Gilead was a better value than Disney, why did you not at least sell a percentage of your shares equivalent to the buyback amount, in addition to taking the dividend? That still wouldn't be terribly logical, but at least it would be taking the
entire portion of the money Disney knew no better use for, rather than only the fraction it returned in the form of a dividend.
Again, this is all to point out the logical inconsistencies that come from occupying the middle ground. If you're better at capital allocation than company management, then it makes no sense to let their dividend payments be the driver of your reallocations. Get your own ass in the driver's seat! And conversely, if you think you're no better at capital allocation than company management, then it makes no sense to favor any particular dividend payout amount over any other (including 0).