I fail to see why person A thinks they are entitled to any future income post divorce. Can you explain that aspect to me?
Sure, i'll play this game. There's lots of possibilities. Here's one:
- Both people get jobs earning roughly the same amount of money
- The wife gets pregnant.
- They
both decide the wife will stay home and raise kids. Not having to juggle home life as much (time off for kid dr/dentist appointments to not racing out end of day for kid pickups, grocery shopping, etc.), spouse is able to devote more time/focus to work, helping them earn more promotions.
- Wife misses out on job experience, salary raises, money into social security and 401k.
- Kids go to school. Wife goes back to work, but needs to start even lower than before, due to penalty from time out of workforce.
- After a lengthy period (let's say 10-20+ years) they decide to divorce.
- Spouse still has job, earned promotions, raises, experience, etc.
--> Upon marriage dissolution, if there's just a straight split down the middle without consideration of other factors, the stay at home spouse that stayed home pays a *heavy* penalty for the joint decision to stay at home, much much higher than the one the working one pays. (For these reasons, I'd recommend a postnup for anyone making this decision. I just heard tonight that my second cousin's new wife is possibly going to stay at home after they move out across country for his job, and I'm worried for her.)
Here's another possibility:
- Person has stock grants (or 401k matches, etc.) that vest over a 5 year period. They get divorced 3 years through, when they've earned 3/5 of the first year, 2/5 of the second, and 1/5 of the third year.
Or:
- Person is offered a signing bonus, standard in their industry (which would be split in a divorce), but instead asks for stock that vests over time to try to avoid paying out anything to soon to be ex-spouse.