Ugh, this is pretty embarassing. the quick of the story is: I currently have a credit card debt of $13,000. The current APR is 16.24%. I have been thinking about doing a ballance transfer to a credit card that has a 0% APR for 18-21 months. I wanted to know people's thoughts.
Now here is the more indepth situation. I am currently an orthopaedic surgery fellow making ~$68k/year prior to taxes. I am in my last year of training. in 12-15 months I will begin a job that will likely pay me between $200-300k/year as a first year attending ($200 being below the average for a 1st year orthopaedic attending). I am doing my fellowship in an expensive area, so my thought is to transfer the ballance so that I don't have to worry about it accruing interest this year as I struggle to pay it off.
The other factor is that if have about $400k in med school loans accruing interest currently but I have already decided not to start paying those back until I become an attending.
So I was hoping to get a little advice on the situation. All help and advice is appreciated. Thank you