I'd still argue 'avoiding paying interest' is not functionally equivalent to a return on investment simply because you can never 'get ahead' by not paying interest, you just end up paying less until the debt is paid off. Once the debt is paid off, you can invest and get ahead by earning a return.
If I have a $100k mortgage at 28.9%, I absolutely can "get ahead" by paying off that loan and thus paying less interest (assuming I can't achieve a consistent 28.9% return elsewhere, which is a reasonable assumption IMO). I mean what is the difference between scenario A and scenario B:
Scenario A: Holding $100k mortgage to completion @28.9% and servicing it entirely with an earmarked $100k investment account earning 28.9%. End result at the end of the mortgage term: $0 debt, $0 invested.
Scenario B: Immediately paying your $100k mortgage off with $100k cash. End result at the end of the mortgage term: $0 debt, $0 invested.
The end result of both scenarios is that the mortgage is paid off and you have $0 debt, and you also have $0 invested. Those seem functionally equivalent to me, and in effect your earmarked $100k resulted in a "return" of 28.9% over the life of the mortgage. Any money you earn in addition to the $100k that is earmarked is irrelevant because you earn that in either scenario, and can direct it however you want in either scenario. Any investment return you make after the completion of the mortgage term is also irrelevant because it's independent of the scenario and can be considered separately.
To me this is essentially just a reconfiguration of the "don't pay of your mortgage" argument where you play 2 scenarios to completion and look at the effect on your networth at the end of the mortgage term. Just as holding onto low interest debt (lower than you expect to earn on investments) can accelerate your timeline to FIRE, holding onto high interest debt will extend your time. It's not a literal "return", but I would argue it's functionally equivalent.