Let's make the assumption that the wealth of the estate exceeds inheritance-exception by 50%.
There are many moving parts to this. For the quoted sentence, what does that mean in terms of the tax rate paid on the IRA balance at death? Would the tax rate be the same if this were a traditional IRA?
For some other assumptions one needs, see input cells in the range H5-H18 on tab '401k vs Taxable' in the
case study spreadsheet.
Also, had this been a traditional,
- What tax rate would have been paid on RMDs?
- What would the tax rate have been on withdrawals by the heirs had this been a traditional IRA?