Say I have shares in a company in my traditional IRA (for example sake, originally purchased in the IRA at $10/share). At some point when the shares are worth say $12/share, I then transfer them in kind to either:
a) a taxable brokerage account
b) a Roth IRA (a Roth conversion)
The tax due from the in-kind distribution is paid from some available cash source....I hold onto the shares for a period of time following the conversion (in the case of the Roth IRA conversion, assume that it's 5 years to avoid the 10% penalty), and ultimately sell at $13/share. Also assume that the time period between conversion and sale is > 1 year to make it LT CG.
To calculate the capital gains on the sale, is the cost basis for the shares the original $10 purchase price, or the $12 at the time of in-kind transfer?