under my assumption that $25 of marginal wealth above $50 million would earn 4% on average
This is the flaw. What part of the tax code says assets generate 4% as income?
Obviously, no part of the tax code. I just made a simple assumption to begin estimating the effect of the wealth tax that is the topic of the thread. I used the most common estimate of return used on the MMM forums as far as I can see, the same 4% normally used in calculating safe returns on a hypothetical portfolio of financial assets since some of the first posts by MMM himself. Why is it so hard to understand a simple estimate of income?
Why not 3%, or 10.5%?
See above
You've tried to equivocate by conflating assets with income.
With all due respect, I have not tried to equivocate. I have tried to be painfully clear. I have tried to balance clarity with brevity. I have repeatedly stated that my estimate combines income tax and wealth tax. Maybe the words I used accidentally confused the issue. That is not equivocation, it is an honest attempt to communicate.
https://www.google.com/search?q=equivocate&oq=equivocate&aqs=chrome..69i57j0l5.2454j1j7&sourceid=chrome&ie=UTF-8Usually I use too many words in an attempt to be clear. Perhaps I have used too few words, thus losing clarity. If so, I apologize. But claiming a negative characterization of my intent is uncalled for. Your statement of my intent is also false.
Would it help if I changed "combines income tax and wealth tax" to "attempts to calculate the combined impact of the wealth tax and the income tax that would occur"? What I am trying to communicate is that I am estimating the effect of the tax being discussed; that if it passes, a marginal $25 of wealth above $50 million will be subject to wealth tax, but if the marginal wealth produces income, that marginal income will also be taxed; and that I am estimating and adding the marginal effect of the two taxes because, in the event that the marginal $25 of wealth exists, the same taxpayer will have to pay both taxes, where she would not have to pay either marginal tax amount in the event that the $25 of marginal wealth did not exist.
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I am not conflating.
Assets are assets. An asset tax would tax assets. This would create a tax amount. My example estimates the marginal amount of tax resulting from the first $25 of wealth above $50 million for a single taxpayer.
Income is income. Income tax taxes income. This creates a tax amount. My example estimates the income that would be created by the $25 of marginal wealth in the example. Income is not wealth, but wealth that is invested in financial assets such as stock can create income. I ESTIMATED the amount of income that would be created by the $25 of marginal wealth. Then I calculated the tax that would apply to the estimated marginal income that I estimated was derived from the marginal wealth.
Note that I did not say or pretend or otherwise mean to imply that the income WAS the wealth. I merely presumed that the wealth would generate income, and estimated the income in order to model the combined impact of the wealth tax and the income tax that would result under the assumptions that I gave.
Calculating the separate effect of two factors in a simple model or example is not conflating the two factors when I have repeatedly specified that they are separate. But when the results come in the common denominator of pennies, adding them together is a reasonable way to summarize the effect of the model, and to state the result of the example.
After all, if this wealth tax passes, both the wealth tax and the income tax will be paid on the very same tax return. They'll probably be calculated on separate schedules. They'll each produce a separate amount of tax liability. The separate tax liability from each schedule will be combined to calculate a total tax liability. And the taxpayer will pay it in dollars and cents. That's not conflating, it's just the procedure for calculating tax (modified by the hypothetical inclusion of the wealth tax that was proposed in the OP).