Which, I have to say, has always struck me as odd. Amendments are, to me, the proof that the original document can be amended. That the original document may need to be reinterpreted or changed. And amendments can be repealed, of course, as well. So, how can an "originalist" say that the Constitution must be read exactly as it was written, with no interpretation?
I'm sorry to make this comparison, but it makes me think of fundamentalists who insist that their Book is true in every single word, and yet do not observe the interdictions against tattoos, shellfish, mixing of fabrics, etc.
Originalist see a big difference between using the amendment process to change the constitution and tying words into pretzels to find hidden penumbras within the original document.
That's a bit of a straw man, don't you think? It's hard to have respect for your side, when you so willfully misrepresent the other side. It is clearly not some sort of illuminati plot to try to understand how the original document was intended, and to recognize that perhaps there were blind spots in the founders' field of vision that made them word things in a way that are a bit open to interpretation now.
I don't think it's as much of a straw man as you might make it out to be. Take the interstate commerce clause, for example. A plain reading of that might lead you to believe that Congress has the power to make rules that regulate the movement of goods and services across state lines. Importantly, the word "interstate" was put in there for a reason, namely to make clear that Congress
did not have the power to regulate commercial activity that occurs entirely within one state.
And yet...in
Wickard v. Filburn, the Supreme Court ruled that the interstate commerce clause gave Congress the ability to prohibit a farmer from growing wheat for his own use, if that wheat would put him over the limit Congress instituted in their nationwide price control legislation. They acknowledged that this particular wheat would never cross state lines, or even really be involved in "commerce" at all since it would be consumed in the same place it was grown. However they ruled that if everyone did this, it could have an effect on the nationwide price of wheat, and so Congress therefore had the power to prohibit it.
This ruling, and others following it, changed this clause of the Constitution from a limited one to an essentially limitless one. Most anything you do could affect national market prices if enough other people did it. Under that interpretation, what behavior
can't Congress restrict? I really doubt that's what the framers intended. The Supreme Court has only recently started to rein it in a little bit, such as in
National Federation of Independent Business v. Sebelius. This ruling upheld the legality of the penalty for failing to buy health insurance, but made clear that the Commerce Clause
does not allow Congress to require people purchase a product from a company. Instead it holds that Congress can use its taxation power to charge a reasonable tax for failing to buy this insurance. The net effect is the same as far as Obamacare is concerned, but it sets forth an important precedent that the Commerce Clause does indeed have limits.