I may regret entering the discussion on this note, but I have seen
@GuitarStv say several times over the years that slavery was a free market. I am astounded by the claim, and that nobody has repudiated this BS. If a transaction has three participants, and one of them (notably the one doing all the work) isn't free, by definition it is not a free market. 2/3≠1.
This argument is like saying "I am vegan 16 hours a day." Nope, the definition of vegan excludes you from being vegan unless you are vegan 24/7.
It is like saying that if two people burglarize my home, and freely agree in advance that one would get the TV and the other get any computers, that it was a free market because they freely agreed to the theft and the government didn't have a law against it. No, it was not a free market, because I did all the labor. It was theft. The government failure wasn't the lack of regulation of the free market, it was lack of illegalization of burglary. The government failure regarding slavery was not the lack of regulation of the free market, it was lack of illegalization of kidnapping, theft, assault, and a hundred other things that could be summed up in the single word "slavery." It was a failure that government
didn't force everyone
into a free market.
The distinction is meaningful. Two salient reasons the South lost the war were first that Gen. Lee had the military mind of a child, and second that the Union had a much stronger industrial base. One of the reasons the south had a weak industrial base is that they did not have a free market. The slave owners and traders had little incentive to innovate or industrialize because they did not work. The slaves had no incentive to innovate because they did not profit and obviously industrialization was out of the question. Even had the South not lost the war, their lack of free market labor made it inevitable that they would have become weak and impoverished by comparison to the North. Within a few more decades the northern states would have become so strongly industrialized that the south would have gone from near equality to the modern equivalent of the "third world," and the economic system of slavery would have been the cause.
To summarize, by definition the slave trade was not a free market, because the slaves were not free. (I mean.. obviously... I really can't comprehend why this is not obvious.) Further, this is not just a semantic distinction.