Are you saying I am incorrect?
Yes. Not wildly so, but yes.
If you were to say an X% total return is divided into Y% (inflation) and Z% (real return), and X = Y + Z, that would be accurate enough*.
Safe Withdrawal Rate (as discussed in some detail in the thread linked above) may be somewhat related to historical average real return, but they aren't the same.
*It's really (1 + X) = (1 + Y) * (1 + Z) = 1 + Y + Z + Y*Z, so X = Y + Z + Y*Z, but when Y and Z are <<1 the simple version is accurate enough. But that's off-topic for SWR vs. Real Return.